NCLEX-PN Practice Exam #05 In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and answering at your own pace.
Question 1. The nurse is preparing to discharge a client following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The nurse should:
A). Tell the client that she can expect lower abdominal pain for the next week.
B). Tell the client that she can resume a regular diet in the next 24 hours.
C). Tell the client to avoid a tub bath for 48 hours.
D). Tell the client to expect clay-colored stools.
Question 1 Answer: C). Tell the client to avoid a tub bath for 48 hours.
Question 1 Explanation: Following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the client should avoid a tub bath for 48 hours. Stools should not be clay colored. Pain is usually located in the shoulders. The client should not resume a regular diet until clear liquids have been tolerated.
Question 2. A high school student returns to school following a 3-week absence due to mononucleosis. The school nurse knows it will be important for the client:
A). To have a snack twice a day to prevent hypoglycemia.
B). To avoid contact sports for 1–2 months.
C). To continue antibiotic therapy for 6 months.
D). To drink additional fluids throughout the day.
Question 2 Answer: B). To avoid contact sports for 1–2 months.
Question 2 Explanation: The client recovering from mononucleosis should avoid contact sports and other activities that could result in injury or rupture of the spleen. The client does not need additional fluids. Hypoglycemia is not associated with mononucleosis. Antibiotics are not usually indicated in the treatment of mononucleosis.
Question 3. A client with hypertension has begun an aerobic exercise program. The nurse should tell the client that the recommended exercise regimen should begin slowly and build up to:
A). 45 minutes two times a week.
B). 1 hour two times a week.
C). 20–30 minutes three times a week.
D). 1 hour four times a week.
Question 3 Answer: C). 20–30 minutes three times a week.
Question 3 Explanation: The client’s aerobic workout should be 20–30 minutes long three times a week. Other answer choices exceed the recommended time for the client beginning an aerobic program; therefore, they are incorrect.
Question 4. A 6-year-old with cystic fibrosis has an order for Creon. The nurse knows that the medication will be given:
A). Twice daily.
B). Daily in the morning.
C). With meals and snacks.
D). At bedtime.
Question 4 Answer: C). With meals and snacks.
Question 4 Explanation: Pancreatic enzyme replacement is given with each meal and each snack. Other answer choices do not specify a relationship to meals; therefore, they are incorrect.
Question 5. Which development milestone puts the 4-month-old infant at greatest risk for injury?
C). Switching objects from one hand to another.
D). Rolling over.
Question 5 Answer: D). Rolling over.
Question 5 Explanation: At 4 months of age, the infant can roll over, which makes it vulnerable to falls from dressing tables or beds without rails. Switching objects from one hand to another is incorrect because it does not prove a threat to safety. Crawling and standing are incorrect because the 4-month-old is not capable of crawling or standing.
Question 6. Which activity is best suited to the 12-year-old with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?
A). Playing slow-pitch softball.
C). Playing video games.
D). Working crossword puzzles.
Question 6 Answer: B). Swimming.
Question 6 Explanation: Exercises that provide light passive resistance are best for the child with rheumatoid arthritis. Playing video games and working crossword puzzles require movement of the hands and fingers that might be too painful for the child with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis; therefore, they are incorrect. Playing slow-pitch softball is incorrect because it requires the use of larger joints affected by the disease.
Question 7. The nurse is caring for a client with an above-the-knee amputation (AKA). To prevent contractures, the nurse should:
A). Place the client in a prone position 15–30 minutes twice a day.
B). Keep the foot of the bed elevated on shock blocks.
C). Keep the client’s leg elevated on two pillows.
D). Place trochanter rolls on either side of the affected leg.
Question 7 Answer: A). Place the client in a prone position 15–30 minutes twice a day.
Question 7 Explanation: The client with an above-the-knee amputation should be placed prone 15–30 minutes twice a day to prevent contractures. Elevating the extremity after the first 24 hours will promote the development of contractures. Use of a trochanter roll will prevent rotation of the extremity but will not prevent contracture.
Question 8. The primary cause of anemia in a client with chronic renal failure is:
A). Destruction of red blood cells.
B). Lack of intrinsic factor.
C). Poor iron absorption.
D). Insufficient erythropoietin.
Question 8 Answer: D). Insufficient erythropoietin.
Question 8 Explanation: Insufficient erythropoietin production is the primary cause of anemia in the client with chronic renal failure. Other answer choices do not relate to the anemia seen in the client with chronic renal failure; therefore, they are incorrect.
Question 9. The mother of a 6-month-old asks when her child will have all his baby teeth. The nurse knows that most children have all their primary teeth by age:
A). 12 months.
B). 18 months.
C). 30 months.
D). 24 months.
Question 9 Answer: C). 30 months.
Question 9 Explanation: All 20 primary, or deciduous, teeth should be present by age 30 months. Other answer choices are incorrect because the ages are wrong.
Question 10. Which finding is the best indication that a client with ineffective airway clearance needs suctioning?
A). Arterial blood gases.
B). Oxygen saturation.
C). Breath sounds.
D). Respiratory rate.
Question 10 Answer: C). Breath sounds.
Question 10 Explanation: Changes in breath sounds are the best indication of the need for suctioning in the client with ineffective airway clearance. Other answer choices are incorrect because they can be altered by other conditions.
Question 11. The nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client with elevated cholesterol levels. Which cooking oil is not suggested for the client on a low-cholesterol diet?
A). Safflower oil.
B). Coconut oil.
C). Sunflower oil.
D). Canola oil.
Question 11 Answer: B). Coconut oil.
Question 11 Explanation: Coconut oil is high in saturated fat and is not appropriate for the client on a low-cholesterol diet. Other answer choices are incorrect because they are suggested for the client with elevated cholesterol levels.
Question 12. A client with tuberculosis has a prescription for Myambutol (ethambutol HCl). The nurse should tell the client to notify the doctor immediately if he notices:
A). Red discoloration of bodily fluids.
B). Gastric distress.
C). Changes in color vision.
D). Changes in hearing.
Question 12 Answer: C). Changes in color vision.
Question 12 Explanation: An adverse reaction to Myambutol is change in visual acuity or color vision.Gastric distress is incorrect because it does not relate to the medication. Changes in hearing is incorrect because it is an adverse reaction to Streptomycin. Red discoloration of bodily fluids is incorrect because it is a side effect of Rifampin.
Question 13. Assessment of a newborn male reveals that the infant has hypospadias. The nurse knows that:
A). The infant should not be circumcised..
B). Surgical correction is delayed until 6 years of age..
C). Surgical correction will be done by 6 months of age..
D). The infant should be circumcised to facilitate voiding..
Question 13 Answer: A). The infant should not be circumcised..
Question 13 Explanation: The infant with hypospadias should not be circumcised because the foreskin is used in reconstruction. Reconstruction is done between 16 and 18 months of age, before toilet training. The infant with hypospadias should not be circumcised.
Question 14. The doctor has prescribed a diet high in vitamin B12 for a client with pernicious anemia. Which foods are highest in B12?
A). Shrimp, legumes, bran cereals.
B). Peanut butter, raisins, molasses.
C). Broccoli, cauliflower, cabbage.
D). Meat, eggs, dairy products.
Question 14 Answer: D). Meat, eggs, dairy products.
Question 14 Explanation: Meat, eggs, and dairy products are foods high in vitamin B12. Peanut butter, raisins, and molasses are sources rich in iron.Broccoli, cauliflower, and cabbage are sources rich in vitamin K. Shrimp, legumes, and bran cereals are high in magnesium.
Question 15. The nurse is caring for a client with stage III Alzheimer’s disease. A characteristic of this stage is:
A). Memory loss.
B). Wandering at night.
C). Failing to recognize familiar objects.
D). Failing to communicate.
Question 15 Answer: C). Failing to recognize familiar objects.
Question 15 Explanation: In stage III of Alzheimer’s disease, the client develops agnosia, or failure to recognize familiar objects. Memory loss appears in stage I. Wandering at night appears in stage II. Failing to communicate appears in stage IV.
Question 16. The doctor has prescribed Cortone (cortisone) for a client with systemic lupus erythematosis. Which instruction should be given to the client?
A). Take the medication 30 minutes before eating..
B). Wear sunglasses to prevent cataracts..
C). Schedule a time to take the influenza vaccine..
D). Report changes in appetite and weight..
Question 16 Answer: C). Schedule a time to take the influenza vaccine..
Question 16 Explanation: The client taking steroid medication should receive an annual influenza vaccine. The medication should be taken with food. Increased appetite and weight gain are expected side effects of the medication. Wearing sunglasses will not prevent cataracts.
Question 17. A neurological consult has been ordered for a pediatric client with suspected petit mal seizures. The client with petit mal seizures can be expected to have:
A). Short, abrupt muscle contraction.
B). Abrupt loss of muscle tone.
C). Quick, bilateral severe jerking movements.
D). A brief lapse in consciousness.
Question 17 Answer: D). A brief lapse in consciousness.
Question 17 Explanation: Absence seizures, formerly known as petit mal seizures, are characterized by a brief lapse in consciousness accompanied by rapid eye blinking, lip smacking, and minor myoclonus of the upper extremities. Short, abrupt muscle contraction symptoms refers to myoclonic seizure; therefore, it is incorrect. Quick, bilateral severe jerking movements refers to tonic clonic, formerly known as grand mal, seizures; therefore, it is incorrect. Abrupt loss of muscle tone refers to atonic seizures; therefore, it is incorrect.
Question 18. Which of the following nursing interventions has the highest priority for the client scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram?
A). Encouraging fluids the evening before the test.
B). Telling the client what to expect during the test.
C). Providing the client with a favorite meal for dinner.
D). Asking if the client has allergies to shellfish.
Question 18 Answer: D). Asking if the client has allergies to shellfish.
Question 18 Explanation: The contrast media used during an intravenous pyelogram contains iodine, which can result in an anaphylactic reaction.
Question 19. The doctor has prescribed aspirin 325mg daily for a client with transient ischemic attacks. The nurse knows that aspirin was prescribed to:
A). Prevent headaches.
B). Keep platelets from clumping together.
C). Prevent cerebral anoxia.
D). Boost coagulation.
Question 19 Answer: B). Keep platelets from clumping together.
Question 19 Explanation: Aspirin prevents the platelets from clumping together to prevent clots. Low-dose aspirin will not prevent headaches. Boost coagulation and prevent cerebral anoxia are untrue statements; therefore, they are incorrect.
Question 20. A client with tuberculosis asks the nurse how long he will have to take medication. The nurse should tell the client that:
A). He will need to take medication the rest of his life..
B). The course of therapy is usually 18–24 months..
C). He will be re-evaluated in 1 month to see if further medication is needed..
D). Medication is rarely needed after 2 weeks..
Question 20 Answer: B). The course of therapy is usually 18–24 months..
Question 20 Explanation: The usual course of treatment requires that medication be given for 18 months to 2 years. Answers “Medication is rarely needed after 2 weeks” and “He will be re-evaluated in 1 month to see if further medication is needed ” are incorrect because the treatment time is too brief. The medication is not needed for life.
Question 21. The glycosylated hemoglobin of a 40-year-old client with diabetes mellitus is 2.5%. The nurse understands that:
A). The client has good control of her diabetes..
B). The client can have a higher-calorie diet..
C). The client has poor control of her diabetes..
D). The client requires adjustment in her insulin dose..
Question 21 Answer: A). The client has good control of her diabetes..
Question 21 Explanation: The client’s diabetes is well under control. The client with higher-calorie diet is incorrect because it will lead to elevated glycosylated hemoglobin. Adjusting insulin dose is not necessary because insulin dose are appropriate for the client. The desired range for glycosylated hemoglobin in the adult client is 2.5%–5.9%
Question 22. A client with breast cancer is returned to the room following a right total mastectomy. The nurse should:
A). Keep the client’s right arm on the bed beside her.
B). Elevate the client’s right arm on pillows.
C). Place the client’s right arm in a dependent sling.
D). Place the client’s right arm across her body.
Question 22 Answer: B). Elevate the client’s right arm on pillows.
Question 22 Explanation: A total mastectomy involves removal of the entire breast and some or all of the axillary lymph nodes. Following surgery, the client’s right arm should be elevated on pillows, to facilitate lymph drainage. Other answer choices are incorrect because they would not help facilitate lymph drainage and would create increased edema in the affected extremity.
Question 23. A client taking Dilantin (phenytoin) for grand mal seizures is preparing for discharge. Which information should be included in the client’s discharge care plan?
A). The medication can cause problems with drowsiness..
B). The client will need to avoid a high-carbohydrate diet..
C). The medication can cause dental staining..
D). The client will need a regularly scheduled CBC..
Question 23 Answer: D). The client will need a regularly scheduled CBC..
Question 23 Explanation: Adverse side effects of Dilantin include agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia; therefore, the client will need frequent CBCs. The medication does not cause dental staining. The medication does not interfere with the metabolism of carbohydrates.The medication does not cause drowsiness.
Question 24. A client with schizoaffective disorder is exhibiting Parkinsonian symptoms. Which medication is responsible for the development of Parkinsonian symptoms?
A). Depakote (divalproex sodium).
B). Benadryl (diphenhydramine).
C). Cogentin (benzatropine mesylate).
D). Zyprexa (olanzapine).
Question 24 Answer: D). Zyprexa (olanzapine).
Question 24 Explanation: A side effect of antipsychotic medication is the development of Parkinsonian symptoms. Cogentin and Benadryl are incorrect because they are used to reverse Parkinsonian symptoms in the client taking antipsychotic medication. Depakote is incorrect because the medication is an anticonvulsant used to stabilize mood. Parkinsonian symptoms are not associated with anticonvulsant medication.
Question 25. While caring for a client with cervical cancer, the nurse notes that the radioactive implant is lying in the bed. The nurse should:
A). Discard the implant in the commode and double-flush.
B). Use tongs to pick up the implant and return it to a lead-lined container.
C). Give the client a pair of gloves and ask her to reinsert the implant.
D). Place the implant in a biohazard bag and return it to the lab.
Question 25 Answer: B). Use tongs to pick up the implant and return it to a lead-lined container.
Question 25 Explanation: The radioactive implant should be picked up with tongs and returned to the lead-lined container. Radioactive materials are placed in lead-lined containers, not plastic ones, and are returned to the radiation department, not the lab. The client should not touch the implant or try to reinsert it. The implant should not be placed in the commode for disposal.