NCLEX Practice Exam for Basic Care and Comfort

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Published on February 9, 2017 by NCLEX Exams

NCLEX Practice Exam for Basic Care and Comfort In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and answering at your own pace.

Question 1. An eleven-month-old infant is brought to the pediatric clinic. The nurse suspects that the child has iron deficiency anemia. Because iron deficiency anemia is suspected, which of the following is the most important information to obtain from the infant’s parents?
A). Relevant sociocultural, economic, and educational background of the family..
B). Normal dietary intake..
C). Any evidence of blood in the stools.
D). A history of maternal anemia during pregnancy.

Question 1 Answer: B). Normal dietary intake..
Question 1 Explanation: Iron deficiency anemia occurs commonly in children 6 to 24 months of age. For the first 4 to 5 months of infancy iron stores laid down for the baby during pregnancy are adequate. When fetal iron stores are depleted, supplemental dietary iron needs to be supplied to meet the infant’s rapid growth needs. Iron deficiency may occur in the infant who drinks mostly milk, which contains no iron, and does not receive adequate dietary iron or supplemental iron. Daily dietary intake is much more related to the diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia than is sociocultural, economic, and educational background of the family. Iron deficiency anemia in an infant is very unlikely to be related to gastrointestinal bleeding. Anemia during pregnancy is unlikely to be the cause of the infant’s iron deficiency anemia. Fetal iron stores are drawn from the mother even if she is anemic.

Question 2. What is the main advantage of cutaneous stimulation in managing pain:
A). allows the family to care for the patient at home..
B). gives client control over pain syndrome..
C). restricts movement and decreases.
D). costs less..

Question 2 Answer: B). gives client control over pain syndrome..
Question 2 Explanation: Cutaneous stimulation allows the patient to have control over his pain and allows him to be in his own environment. Cutaneous stimulation increases movement and decreases pain.

Question 3. What is the pathological process causing esophageal varices is
A). systemic hypertension..
B). dilated veins and varicesitis..
C). portal hypertension..
D). ascites and edema..

Question 3 Answer: C). portal hypertension..
Question 3 Explanation: Esophageal varices results from increased portal hypertension. In portal hypertension, the liver cannot accept all of the fluid from the portal vein. The excess fluid will back flow to the vessels with lesser pressure, such as esophageal veins or rectal veins causing esophageal varices or hemorrhoids.

Question 4. Pain tolerance in an elderly patient with cancer would:
A). be increased..
B). be lowered..
C). stay the same..
D). no effect on pain tolerance..

Question 4 Answer: B). be lowered..
Question 4 Explanation: There is potential for a lowered pain tolerance to exist with diminished adaptative capacity.

Question 5. Which of the following should be included in a plan of care for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?
A). Flush the TPN line with water prior to initiating nutritional support..
B). Change TPN solution every 24 hours.
C). Withhold medications while the TPN is infusing..
D). Keep client on complete bed rest during TPN therapy..

Question 5 Answer: B). Change TPN solution every 24 hours.
Question 5 Explanation: TPN solutions should be changed every 24 hours in order to prevent bacterial overgrowth due to hypertonicity of the solution. Withholding medications while the TPN is infusing is incorrect; medication therapy can continue during TPN therapy. Flushing the TPN line with water prior to initiating nutritional support is incorrect; flushing is not required because the initiation of TPN does not require a client to remain on bed rest during therapy. However, other clinical conditions of the client may affect mobility issues and warrant the client’s being on bed rest.

Question 6. A nurse is assessing several clients in a long term health care facility. Which client is at highest risk for development of decubitus ulcers?
A). An incontinent client who has had 3 diarrhea stools.
B). An obese client who uses a wheelchair.
C). An 80 year-old ambulatory diabetic client.
D). A 79 year-old malnourished client on bed rest.

Question 6 Answer: D). A 79 year-old malnourished client on bed rest.
Question 6 Explanation: Weighing significantly less than ideal body weight increases the number and surface area of bony prominences which are susceptible to pressure ulcers. Thus, malnutrition is a major risk factor for decubiti, due in part to poor hydration and inadequate protein intake.

Question 7. What do you think is the most important nursing order in a client with major head trauma who is about to receive bolus enteral feeding?
A). check albumin level..
B). measure intake and output..
C). increase enteral feeding..
D). monitor glucose levels..

Question 7 Answer: B). measure intake and output..
Question 7 Explanation: It is important to measure intake and output, which should equal. Enteral feeding are hyperosmotic agents pulling fluid from cells into vascular bed. Water given before feeding will present a hyperosmotic diuresis. I and O measures assess fluid balance.

Question 8. A client in a long term care facility complains of pain. The nurse collects data about the client’s pain. The first step in pain assessment is for the nurse to
A). determine the client’s status of pain.
B). get the description of the location and intensity of the pain.
C). accept the client’s report of pain.
D). have the client identify coping methods.

Question 8 Answer: C). accept the client’s report of pain.
Question 8 Explanation: Although all of the options above are correct, the first and most important piece of information in this client’s pain assessment is what the client is telling you about the pain –“the client’s report.”

Question 9. The nurse is instructing a 65 year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to
A). avoid exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture.
B). exercise to strengthen muscles and thereby protect bones.
C). exercise to reduce weight.
D). exercise doing weight bearing activities.

Question 9 Answer: D). exercise doing weight bearing activities.
Question 9 Explanation: Weight bearing exercises are beneficial in the treatment of osteoporosis. Although loss of bone cannot be substantially reversed, further loss can be greatly reduced if the client includes weight bearing exercises along with estrogen replacement and calcium supplements in their treatment protocol.

Question 10. The nurse is instructing a woman in a low-fat, high-fiber diet. Which of the following food choices, if selected by the client, indicate an understanding of a low-fat, high-fiber diet?
A). Chef’s salad with hard boiled eggs and fat-free dressing.
B). Broiled chicken stuffed with chopped apples and walnuts.
C). una salad sandwich on whole wheat bread..
D). Vegetable soup made with vegetable stock, carrots, celery, and legumes served with toasted oat bread.

Question 10 Answer: D). Vegetable soup made with vegetable stock, carrots, celery, and legumes served with toasted oat bread.
Question 10 Explanation: Mayonnaise in tuna salad is high in fat. The whole wheat bread has some fiber. This choice shows a low-fat soup (which would have been higher in fat if made with chicken or beef stock) and high-fiber bread and soup contents (both the vegetables and the legumes). Salad is high in fiber, but hard boiled eggs are high in fat. There is some fiber in the apples and walnuts. The walnuts are high in fat, as is the chicken.

Question 11. Which of the following interventions will help lessen the effect of GERD (acid reflux)?
A). Wear a girdle..
B). Increase fluid intake just before bedtime..
C). Lie down after eating..
D). Elevate the head of the bed on 4-6 inch blocks..

Question 11 Answer: D). Elevate the head of the bed on 4-6 inch blocks..
Question 11 Explanation: Elevation of the head of the bed allows gravity to assist in decreasing the backflow of acid into the esophagus. Fluid does not flow uphill. The other three options all increase fluid backflow into the esophagus through position or increasing abdominal pressure.

Question 12. Nurse Jessie is caring for an elderly woman who has had a fractured hip repaired. In the first few days following the surgical repair, which of the following nursing measures will best facilitate the resumption of activities for this client?
A). encouraging the use of an overhead trapeze.
B). arranging for the wheelchair.
C). asking her family to visit.
D). assisting her to sit out of bed in a chair qid.

Question 12 Answer: A). encouraging the use of an overhead trapeze.
Question 12 Explanation: Exercise is important to keep the joints and muscles functioning and to prevent secondary complications. Using the overhead trapeze prevents hazards of immobility by permitting movement in bed and strengthening of the upper extremities in preparation for ambulation. Sitting in a wheelchair would require too great hip flexion initially. Asking her family to visit would not facilitate the resumption of activities. Sitting in a chair would cause too much hip flexion. The client initially needs to be in a low Fowler’s position or taking a few steps (as ordered) with the aid of a walker.

Question 13. Which of the following foods should be avoided by clients who are prone to develop heartburn as a result of gastroesophgeal reflux disease (GERD)?
A). Lettuce.
B). Chocolate.
C). Butterscotch.
D). Eggs.

Question 13 Answer: B). Chocolate.
Question 13 Explanation: Ingestion of chocolate can reduce lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure leading to reflux and clinical symptoms of GERD. All of the other foods do not affect LES pressure.

Question 14. A 46-year-old female with chronic constipation is assessed by the nurse for a bowel training regimen. Which factor indicates further information is needed by the nurse?
A). The client’s bowel habits were not discussed..
B). The client engages in moderate exercise each day.
C). The client’s dietary habits include foods high in bulk..
D). The client’s fluid intake is between 2500-3000 ml per day.

Question 14 Answer: A). The client’s bowel habits were not discussed..
Question 14 Explanation: Foods high in bulk are appropriate. Exercise should be a part of a bowel training regimen. To assess the client for a bowel training program the factors causing the bowel alteration should be assessed. A routine for bowel elimination should be based on the client’s previous bowel habits and alterations in bowel habits that have occurred because of illness or trauma. The client and the family should assist in the planning of the program which should include foods high in bulk, adequate exercise, and fluid intake of 2500-3000 ml.

Question 15. What is the main benefit of therapeutic massages is:
A). to help a person with duodenal ulcers feel better..
B). to improve circulation and muscles tone..
C). to help damaged tissue in a diabetic to heal..
D). to help a person with swollen legs to decrease the fluid retention..

Question 15 Answer: B). to improve circulation and muscles tone..
Question 15 Explanation: Particularly in the elderly adults, therapeutic massage will help improve circulation and muscle tone as well as the personal attention and social interaction that a good massage provides. A massage is contraindicated in any condition where massage to damaged tissue can dislodge a blood clot.

Question 16. An 85-year-old male patient has been bedridden for two weeks. Which of the following complaints by the patient indicates to the nurse that he is developing a complication of immobility?
A). Short-term memory loss..
B). Stiffness of the right ankle joint.
C). Soreness of the gums.
D). Decreased appetite..

Question 16 Answer: B). Stiffness of the right ankle joint.
Question 16 Explanation: Stiffness of a joint may indicate the beginning of a contracture and/or early muscle atrophy. Soreness of the gums is not related to immobility. Short-term memory loss is not related to immobility. Decreased appetite is unlikely to be related to immobility.

Question 17. Ms. Kelly. has had a CVA (cerebrovascular accident) and has severe right-sided weakness. She has been taught to walk with a cane. The nurse is evaluating her use of the cane prior to discharge. Which of the following reflects correct use of the cane?
A). Holding the cane in her left hand, Ms. Kelly. moves the cane and her left leg forward, then moves her right leg forward.
B). Holding the cane in her right hand, Ms. Kelly. moves the cane forward first, then her left leg, and finally her right leg.
C). Holding the cane in her right hand, Ms. Kelly. moves the cane and her right leg forward, then moves her left leg forward..
D). Holding the cane in her left hand, Ms. Kelly. moves the cane forward first, then her right leg, and finally her left leg.

Question 17 Answer: D). Holding the cane in her left hand, Ms. Kelly. moves the cane forward first, then her right leg, and finally her left leg.
Question 17 Explanation: When a person with weakness on one side uses a cane, there should always be two points of contact with the floor. When Ms. Kelly. moves the cane forward, she has both feet on the floor, providing stability. As she moves the weak leg, the cane and the strong leg provide support. Finally, the cane, which is even with the weak leg, provides stability while she moves the strong leg. She should not hold the cane with her weak arm. The use of the cane requires arm strength to ensure that the cane provides adequate stability when standing on the weak leg. The cane should be held in the left hand, the hand opposite the affected leg. If Ms. Kelly. moved the cane and her strong foot at the same time, she would be left standing on her weak leg at one point. This would be unstable at best; at worse, impossible

Question 18. After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate to suggest?
A). 3 oz. canned salmon, fresh broccoli, 1 biscuit, tea, and 1 apple.
B). 3 oz. broiled fish, 1 baked potato, ½ cup canned beets, 1 orange, and milk.
C). A bologna sandwich, fresh eggplant, 2 oz fresh fruit, tea, and apple juice.
D). 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange.

Question 18 Answer: D). 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange.
Question 18 Explanation: Canned fish and vegetables and cured meats are high in sodium. This meal does not contain any canned fish and/or vegetables or cured meats

Question 19. Which statement best describes the effects of immobility in children?
A). Immobility in children has similar physical effects to those found in adults.
B). Children are likely to have prolonged immobility with subsequent complications.
C). Immobility prevents the progression of language and fine motor development.
D). Children are more susceptible to the effects of immobility than are adults.

Question 19 Answer: A). Immobility in children has similar physical effects to those found in adults.
Question 19 Explanation: Care of the immobile child includes efforts to prevent complications of muscle atrophy, contractures, skin breakdown, decreased metabolism and bone demineralization. Secondary alterations also occur in the cardiovascular, respiratory and renal systems. Similar effects and alterations occur in adults.

Question 20. Which of the following should be included in a plan of care for a client who is lactose intolerant?
A). Drink small amounts of milk on an empty stomach..
B). Remove all dairy products from the diet..
C). Frozen yogurt can be included in the diet..
D). Spread out selection of dairy products throughout the day..

Question 20 Answer: C). Frozen yogurt can be included in the diet..
Question 20 Explanation: Clients who are lactose intolerant can digest frozen yogurt. Yogurt products are formed by bacterial action, and this action assists in the digestion of lactose. The freezing process further stops bacterial action so that limited lactase activity remains. Elimination of all dairy products can lead to significant clinical deficiencies of other nutrients. Drinking milk on an empty stomach can exacerbate clinical symptoms. Drinking milk with a meal may benefit the client because other foods, (especially fat) may decrease transit time and allow for increased lactase activity. Although individual tolerance should be acknowledged, spreading out the use of known dairy products will usually exacerbate clinical symptoms.

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