NCLEX Practice Exam for Health Promotion and Maintenance

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Published on February 8, 2017 by NCLEX Exams

NCLEX Practice Exam for Health Promotion and Maintenance In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and answering at your own pace.

Question 1. When assessing a newborn whose mother consumed alcohol during the pregnancy, the nurse would assess for which of these clinical manifestations?
A). negative Babinski sign, hyperreflexia, deafness.
B). shortened limbs, increased jitteriness, constant sucking.
C). wide-spaced eyes, smooth filtrum, flattened nose.
D). strong tongue thrust, short palpebral fissures, simean crease.

Question 1 Answer: C). wide-spaced eyes, smooth filtrum, flattened nose.
Question 1 Explanation: The nurse should anticipate that the infant may have fetal alcohol syndrome and should assess for signs and symptoms of it like wide-spaced eyes, smooth filtrum, flattened nose.

Question 2. While the nurse is administering medications to a client, the client states “I do not want to take that medicine today.” Which of the following responses by the nurse would be best?
A). “That’s OK, its all right to skip your medication now and then.”.
B). “I will have to call your doctor and report this.”.
C). “Do you understand the consequences of refusing your prescribed treatment?”.
D). “Is there a reason why you don’t want to take your medicine?”.

Question 2 Answer: D). “Is there a reason why you don’t want to take your medicine?”.
Question 2 Explanation: When a new problem is identified, it is important for the nurse to collect accurate assessment data. This is crucial to ensure that client needs are adequately identified in order to select the best nursing care approaches. The nurse should try to discover the reason for the refusal which may be that the client has developed untoward side effects.

Question 3. The nurse assesses a prolonged late deceleration of the fetal heart rate while the client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) IV to stimulate labor. The priority nursing intervention would be to:
A). Turn off the infusion.
B). Turn the client to the left.
C). Increase mainline IV rate.
D). Change the fluid to Ringer’s Lactate.

Question 3 Answer: A). Turn off the infusion.
Question 3 Explanation: Stopping the infusion will decrease contractions and possibly remove uterine pressure on the fetus, which is a possible cause of the deceleration.

Question 4. While caring for a client, the nurse notes a pulsating mass in the client’s periumbilical area. Which of the following assessments is appropriate for the nurse to perform?
A). Measure the length of the mass.
B). Auscultate the mass.
C). Percuss the mass.
D). Palpate the mass.

Question 4 Answer: B). Auscultate the mass.
Question 4 Explanation: Auscultate the mass. Auscultation of the abdomen and finding a bruit will confirm the presence of an abdominal aneurysm and will form the basis of information given to the provider. The mass should not be palpated because of the risk of rupture.

Question 5. An 8.5 lb, 6 oz infant is delivered to a diabetic mother. Which nursing intervention would be implemented when the neonate becomes jittery and lethargic?
A). Feed the infant glucose water (10%).
B). Administer oxygen.
C). Administer insulin.
D). Place infant in a warmer.

Question 5 Answer: A). Feed the infant glucose water (10%).
Question 5 Explanation: After birth, the infant of a diabetic mother is often hypoglycemic.

Question 6. All of the following characteristics would indicate to the nurse that an elder client might experience undesirable effects of medicines except:
A). medications containing magnesium..
B). increased oxidative enzyme levels..
C). decreased serum albumin.
D). alcohol taken with medication..

Question 6 Answer: B). increased oxidative enzyme levels..
Question 6 Explanation: Oxidative enzyme levels decrease in the elderly, which affects the disposition of medication and can alter the therapeutic effects of medication. Alcohol has a smaller water distribution level in the elderly, resulting in higher blood alcohol levels. Alcohol also interacts with various drugs to either potentate or interfere with their effects. Magnesium is contained in a lot of medications elder clients routinely obtain over the counter. Magnesium toxicity is a real concern. Albumin is the major drug-binding protein. Decreased levels of serum albumin mean that higher levels of the drug remain free and that there are less therapeutic effects and increased drug interactions.

Question 7. The nurse is teaching the parents of a 3 month-old infant about nutrition. What is the main source of fluids for an infant until about 12 months of age?
A). Warmed fruit juice.
B). Formula or breast milk.
C). Fluoridated tap water.
D). Dilute nonfat dry milk.

Question 7 Answer: B). Formula or breast milk.
Question 7 Explanation: Formula or breast milk are the perfect food and source of nutrients and liquids up to 1 year of age.

Question 8. What question would be most important to ask a male client who is in for a digital rectal examination?
A). “Have you noticed a change in the force of the urinary system?”.
B). “Do you notice polyuria in the AM?”.
C). “Do you notice any burning with urination or any odor to the urine?”.
D). “Have you noticed a change in tolerance of certain foods in your diet?”.

Question 8 Answer: A). “Have you noticed a change in the force of the urinary system?”.
Question 8 Explanation: This change would be most indicative of a potential complication with (BPH) benign prostate hypertrophy.

Question 9. During the history, which information from a 21 year old client would indicate a risk for development of testicular cancer?
A). Hydrocele.
B). Genital Herpes.
C). Undescended testicle.
D). Measles.

Question 9 Answer: C). Undescended testicle.
Question 9 Explanation: Undescended testicles make the client high risk for testicular cancer. Mumps, inguinal hernia in childhood, orchitis, and testicular cancer in the contra lateral testis are other predisposing factors.

Question 10. Which of these statements, when made by the nurse, is most effective when communicating with a 4-year-old?
A). “This will be like having a little stick in your arm.”.
B). “Tell me where you hurt.”.
C). “Anything you tell me is confidential.”.
D). “Other children like having their blood pressure taken.”.

Question 10 Answer: B). “Tell me where you hurt.”.
Question 10 Explanation: Four-year-olds are egocentric and interested in having the focus on themselves. They will not be interested in what it feels like to other children. Preschoolers are concrete thinkers and would literally interpret any analogies so they are not helpful in explaining procedures. Assurance of confidential communication is most appropriate for the adolescent. In addition, confidentiality is not maintained if the child plans to harm themselves, harm someone else, or discloses abuse.

Question 11. The nurse is assessing a client who states her last menstrual period was March 17, and she has missed one period. She reports episodes of nausea and vomiting. Pregancy is confirmed by a urine test. What will the nurse calculate as the estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A). November 8.
B). December 24.
C). May 15.
D). February 21.

Question 11 Answer: B). December 24.
Question 11 Explanation: Naegele’s rule: add 7 days and subtract 3 months from the first day of the last regular menstrual period to calculate the estimated date of delivery.

Question 12. Which technique would be best in caring for a client following receiving a diagnosis of a state IV tumor in the brain?
A). Offering the client pamphlets on support groups for brain cancer.
B). Asking the client if there is anything he or his family needs.
C). Providing accurate information about the disease and treatment options.
D). Reminding the client that advances in technology are occurring everyday.

Question 12 Answer: C). Providing accurate information about the disease and treatment options.
Question 12 Explanation: Providing information for the client is the best technique for a new diagnosis.

Question 13. A 64 year-old client scheduled for surgery with a general anesthetic refuses to remove a set of dentures prior to leaving the unit for the operating room. What would be the most appropriate intervention by the nurse?
A). Notify the anesthesia department and the surgeon of the client’s refusal.
B). Ask the client if there are second thoughts about having the procedure.
C). Explain to the client that the dentures must come out as they may get lost or broken in the operating room.
D). Ask the client if the preference would be to remove the dentures in the operating room receiving area.

Question 13 Answer: D). Ask the client if the preference would be to remove the dentures in the operating room receiving area.
Question 13 Explanation: Clients anticipating surgery may experience a variety of fears. This choice allows the client control over the situation and fosters the client’s sense of self-esteem and self-concept.

Question 14. Which nursing intervention would be a priority during the care of a 2 month old after surgery?
A). Encourage stroking of the infant.
B). Minimize stimuli for the infant.
C). Restrain all extremities.
D). Demonstrate to the mother how she can assist with her infant’s care..

Question 14 Answer: A). Encourage stroking of the infant.
Question 14 Explanation: Tactile stimulation is imperative for an infant’s normal emotional development. After the trauma of surgery, sensory deprivation can cause failure to thrive.

Question 15. The nurse should recognize that all of the following physical changes of the head and face are associated with the aging client except:
A). increased growth of facial hair..
B). decreased size of the nose and ears..
C). pronounced wrinkles on the face..
D). neck wrinkles..

Question 15 Answer: B). decreased size of the nose and ears..
Question 15 Explanation: The nose and ears of the aging client actually become longer and broader. The chin line is also altered. Wrinkles on the face become more pronounced and tend to take on the general mood of the client over the years. For example laugh or frown wrinkles about the eyebrows, lips, cheeks, and outer edges of the eye orbit. The change in the androgen-estrogen ration causes an increase in growth of facial hair in most elder adults. The aging process shortens the platysma muscle, which contributes to neck wrinkles.

Question 16. When observing 4 year-old children playing in the hospital playroom, what activity would the nurse expect to see the children participating in?
A). Playing with their own toys along side with other children.
B). Playing alone with hand held computer games.
C). Playing cooperatively with other preschoolers.
D). Competitive board games with older children.

Question 16 Answer: C). Playing cooperatively with other preschoolers.
Question 16 Explanation: Playing cooperatively with other preschoolers. Cooperative play is typical of the late preschool period.

Question 17. While performing a physical examination on a newborn, which assessment should be reported to the physician?
A). Heart rate of 160 and respirations of 40.
B). Head circumference of 40 cm.
C). Acrocyanosis and edema of the scalp.
D). Chest circumference of 32 cm.

Question 17 Answer: B). Head circumference of 40 cm.
Question 17 Explanation: Average circumference of the head for a neonate ranges between 32 to 36 cm. An increase in size may indicate hydrocephaly or increased intracranial pressure.

Question 18. The nurse is assessing a 4 month-old infant. Which motor skill would the nurse anticipate finding?
A). Drink from a cup.
B). Bang two blocks.
C). Wave “bye-bye”.
D). Hold a rattle.

Question 18 Answer: D). Hold a rattle.
Question 18 Explanation: The age at which a baby will develop the skill of grasping a toy with help is 4 to 6 months.

Question 19. Which nursing approach would be most appropriate to use while administering an oral medication to a 4 month old?
A). Place in supine position. Administer medication using a plastic syringe.
B). Place medication in an empty nipple.
C). Place medication in a full bottle of formula.
D). Place medication in 45cc of formula.

Question 19 Answer: B). Place medication in an empty nipple.
Question 19 Explanation: This is a convenient method for administering medications to an infant. Placing in supine position and administering medication using a plastic syringe is partially correct however, the infant is never placed in a reclining position during a procedure due to a potential aspiration.

Question 20. When a client wishes to improve the appearance of their eyes by removing excess skin from the face and neck, the nurse should provide teaching regarding which of the following procedures?
A). Rhytidectomy.
B). Rhinoplasty.
C). Dermabrasion.
D). Blepharoplasty.

Question 20 Answer: A). Rhytidectomy.
Question 20 Explanation: Rhytidectomy is the procedure for removing excess skin from the face and neck. It is commonly called a face lift. Dermabrasion involves the spraying of a chemical to cause light freezing of the skin, which is then abraded with sandpaper or a revolving wire brush. It is used to remove facial scars, severe acne, and pigment from tattoos. Rhinoplasty is done to improve the appearance of the nose and involves reshaping the nasal skeleton and overlying skin. Blepharoplasty is the procedure that removes loose and protruding fat from the upper and lower eyelids.

Question 21. The family of a 6 year-old with a fractured femur asks the nurse if the child’s height will be affected by the injury. Which statement is true concerning long bone fractures in children?
A). Epiphyseal fractures often interrupt a child’s normal growth pattern.
B). Growth problems will occur if the fracture involves the periosteum.
C). Adequate blood supply to the bone prevents growth delay after fractures.
D). Children usually heal very quickly, so growth problems are rare.

Question 21 Answer: A). Epiphyseal fractures often interrupt a child’s normal growth pattern.
Question 21 Explanation: Epiphyseal fractures often interrupt a child’s normal growth pattern

Question 22. A client is admitted to the hospital with a history of confusion. The client has difficulty remembering recent events and becomes disoriented when away from home. Which statement would provide the bestreality orientation for this client?
A). “Good morning. Do you remember where you are?”.
B). “Good morning. You’re in the hospital. I am your nurse Elaine Jones.”.
C). “Hello. My name is Elaine Jones and I am your nurse for today.”.
D). “How are you today? Remember, you’re in the hospital.”.

Question 22 Answer: B). “Good morning. You’re in the hospital. I am your nurse Elaine Jones.”.
Question 22 Explanation: As cognitive ability declines, the nurse provides a calm, predictable environment for the client. This response establishes time, location and the caregivers name.

Question 23. What equipment would be necessary to complete an evaluation of cranial nerves 9 and 10 during a physical assessment?
A). A cotton ball.
B). An ophthalmoscope.
C). A pen light.
D). A tongue depressor and flashlight.

Question 23 Answer: D). A tongue depressor and flashlight.
Question 23 Explanation: Cranial nerves 9 and 10 are the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves. The gag reflex would be evaluated.

Question 24. Which action by the mother of a preschooler would indicate a disturbed family interaction?
A). Tells her child that if he does not sit down and shut up she will leave him there..
B). Reassures child that it is acceptable to cry..
C). Explains that the injection will burn like abee sting..
D). Tells her child that the injection can be given while he’s in her lap.

Question 24 Answer: A). Tells her child that if he does not sit down and shut up she will leave him there..
Question 24 Explanation: Threatening a child with abandonment will destroy the child’s trust in his family

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