NCLEX Practice Exam for Safety and Infection Control In Text Mode: All questions and answers are given for reading and answering at your own pace.
Question 1. A 3-year-old child is receiving dextrose 5% in water and half-normal saline solution at 100 ml/hour. Which sign or symptom suggests excessive I.V. fluid intake?
A). Gastric distension.
B). Temperature of 102°F (38.9° C).
C). Worsening dyspnea.
D). Nausea and vomiting.
Question 1 Answer: C). Worsening dyspnea.
Question 1 Explanation: Dyspnea and other signs of respiratory distress signify fluid volume excess (overload), which can occur quickly in a child as fluid shifts rapidly between the intracellular and extracellular compartments. Gastric distention may suggest excessive oral fluid intake or infection. Nausea and vomiting or an elevated temperature may indicate a fluid volume deficit.
Question 2. Nurse Harry is providing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to a child, age 4. the nurse should:
A). Compress the sternum with both hands at a depth of 1½ to 2” (4 to 5 cm).
B). Perform only two-person CPR.
C). Deliver 12 breaths/minute.
D). Use the heel of one hand for sternal compressions.
Question 2 Answer: D). Use the heel of one hand for sternal compressions.
Question 2 Explanation: The nurse should use the heel of one hand and compress 1” to 1½ “. The nurse should use the heels of both hands clasped together and compress the sternum 1½ “to 2” for an adult. For a small child, two-person rescue may be inappropriate. For a child, the nurse should deliver 20 breaths/minute instead of 12.
Question 3. A tuberculosis intradermal skin test to detect tuberculosis infection is given to a high-risk adolescent. How long after the test is administered should the result be evaluated?
A). After 5 days.
B). Within 24 hours.
D). In 48 to 72 hours.
Question 3 Answer: D). In 48 to 72 hours.
Question 3 Explanation: Tuberculin skin tests of delayed hypersensitivity. If the test results are positive, a reaction should appear in 48 to 72 hours. Immediately after the test and within 24 hours are both too soon to observe a reaction. Waiting more than 5 days to evaluate the test is too long because any reaction may no longer be visible.
Question 4. Patrick, a healthy adolescent has meningitis and is receiving I.V. and oral fluids. The nurse should monitor this client’s fluid intake because fluid overload may cause:
A). Hypovolemic shock.
B). Heart failure.
C). Cerebral edema.
Question 4 Answer: C). Cerebral edema.
Question 4 Explanation: Because of the inflammation of the meninges, the client is vulnerable to developing cerebral edema and increase intracranial pressure. Fluid overload won’t cause dehydration. It would be unusual for an adolescent to develop heart failure unless the overhydration is extreme. Hypovolemic shock would occur with an extreme loss of fluid of blood.
Question 5. When caring for an 11-month-old infant with dehydration and metabolic acidosis, the nurse expects to see which of the following?
B). Shallow respirations.
C). A reduced white blood cell count.
D). A decreased platelet count.
Question 5 Answer: A). Tachypnea.
Question 5 Explanation: The body compensates for metabolic acidosis via the respiratory system, which tries to eliminate the buffered acids by increasing alveolar ventilation through deep, rapid respirations, altered white blood cell or platelet counts are not specific signs of metabolic imbalance.
Question 6. An infant is hospitalized for treatment of nonorganic failure to thrive. Which nursing action is most appropriate for this infant?
A). Maintaining a consistent, structured environment.
B). Encouraging the infant to hold a bottle.
C). Rotating caregivers to provide more stimulation.
D). Keeping the infant on bed rest to conserve energy.
Question 6 Answer: A). Maintaining a consistent, structured environment.
Question 6 Explanation: The nurse caring for an infant with nonorganic failure to thrive should maintain a consistent, structured environment that provides interaction with the infant to promote growth and development. Encouraging the infant to hold a bottle would reinforce an uncaring feeding environment. The infant should receive social stimulation rather than be confined to bed rest. The number of caregivers should be minimized to promote consistency of care.
Question 7. Nurse Mariane is caring for an infant with spina bifida. Which technique is most important in recognizing possible hydrocephalus?
A). Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
B). Measuring head circumference.
C). Performing a lumbar puncture.
D). Obtaining skull X-ray.
Question 7 Answer: B). Measuring head circumference.
Question 7 Explanation: Measuring head circumference is the most important assessment technique for recognizing possible hydrocephalus, and is a key part of routine infant screening. Skull X-rays and MRI may be used to confirm the diagnosis. A lumbar puncture isn’t appropriate.
Question 8. The nurse is finishing her shift on the pediatric unit. Because her shift is ending, which intervention takes top priority?
A). Documenting the care provided during her shift.
B). Restocking the bedside supplies needed for a dressing change on the upcoming shift.
C). Emptying the trash cans in the assigned client room.
D). Changing the linens on the clients’ beds.
Question 8 Answer: A). Documenting the care provided during her shift.
Question 8 Explanation: Documentation should take top priority. Documentation is the only way the nurse can legally claim that interventions were performed. The other three options would be appreciated by the nurses on the oncoming shift but aren’t mandatory and don’t take priority over documentation.
Question 9. An adult woman is admitted to an isolation unit in the hospital after tuberculosis was detected during a pre-employment physical. Although frightened about her diagnosis, she is anxious to cooperate with the therapeutic regimen. The teaching plan includes information regarding the most common means of transmitting the tubercle bacillus from one individual to another. Which contamination is usually responsible?
B). Eating utensils..
C). Milk products..
D). Droplet nuclei..
Question 9 Answer: D). Droplet nuclei..
Question 9 Explanation: Hands are the primary method of transmission of the common cold. The most frequent means of transmission of the tubercle bacillus is by droplet nuclei. The bacillus is present in the air as a result of coughing, sneezing, and expectoration of sputum by an infected person. The tubercle bacillus is not transmitted by means of contaminated food. Contact with contaminated food or water could cause outbreaks of salmonella, infectious hepatitis, typhoid, or cholera. The tubercle bacillus is not transmitted by eating utensils. Some exogenous microbes can be transmitted via reservoirs such as linens or eating utensils.
Question 10. The charge nurse observes a new staff nurse who is changing a dressing on a surgical wound. After carefully washing her hands the nurse dons sterile gloves to remove the old dressing. After removing the dirty dressing, the nurse removes the gloves and dons a new pair of sterile gloves in preparation for cleaning and redressing the wound. The most appropriate action for the charge nurse is to:
A). interrupt the procedure to inform the staff nurse that sterile gloves are not needed to remove the old dressing..
B). congratulate the nurse on the use of good technique..
C). discuss dressing change technique with the nurse at a later date..
D). discuss dressing change technique with the nurse at a later date..
Question 10 Answer: D). discuss dressing change technique with the nurse at a later date..
Question 10 Explanation: Nonsterile gloves are adequate to remove the old dressing. However, the use of sterile gloves does not put the client in danger so discussion of this can wait until later. The staff nurse is doing two things incorrectly. Nonsterile gloves are adequate to remove the old dressing. The nurse should wash her hands after removing the soiled dressing and before donning sterile gloves to clean and dress the wound. The nurse should wash her hands after removing the soiled dressing and before donning the sterile gloves to clean and dress the wound. Not doing this compromises client safety and should be brought to the immediate attention of the nurse. The staff nurse is doing two things incorrectly. Nonsterile gloves are adequate to remove the old dressing. However, the use of sterile gloves does not put the client in danger so discussion of this can wait until later. However, the nurse should wash her hands after removing the soiled dressing and before donning sterile gloves to clean and dress the wound. Not doing this compromises client safety and should be brought to the immediate attention of the nurse.
Question 11. Nurse Betina should begin screening for lead poisoning when a child reaches which age?
A). 24 months.
B). 6 months.
C). 12 months.
D). 18 months.
Question 11 Answer: D). 18 months.
Question 11 Explanation: The nurse should start screening a child for lead poisoning at age 18 months and perform repeat screening at age 24, 30, and 36 months. High-risk infants, such as premature infants and formula-fed infants not receiving iron supplementation, should be screened for iron-deficiency anemia at 6 months. Regular dental visits should begin at age 24 months.
Question 12. Several clients are admitted to an adult medical unit. The nurse would ensure airborne precautions for a client with which of the following medical conditions?
A). Advanced carcinoma of the lung.
B). A diagnosis of AIDS and cytomegalovirus.
C). A positive PPD with an abnormal chest x-ray.
D). A tentative diagnosis of viral pneumonia.
Question 12 Answer: C). A positive PPD with an abnormal chest x-ray.
Question 12 Explanation: The client who must be placed in airborne precautions is the client with a positive PPD (purified protein derivative) who has a positive x-ray for a suspicious tuberculin lesion.
Question 13. Mrs. Jones will have to change the dressing on her injured right leg twice a day. The dressing will be a sterile dressing, using 4 X 4s, normal saline irrigant, and abdominal pads. Which statement best indicates that Mrs. Jones understands the importance of maintaining asepsis?
A). “If I question the sterility of any dressing material, I should not use it.”.
B). “I should put on my sterile gloves, then open the bottle of saline to soak the 4 X 4s.”.
C). “If I drop the 4 X 4s on the floor, I can use them as long as they are not soiled.”.
D). “If I drop the 4 X 4s on the floor, I can use them if I rinse them with sterile normal saline.”.
Question 13 Answer: A). “If I question the sterility of any dressing material, I should not use it.”.
Question 13 Explanation: Anything dropped on the floor is no longer sterile and should not be used. The statement indicates lack of understanding. Anything dropped on the floor is no longer sterile and should not be used. The statement indicates lack of understanding. If there is ever any doubt about the sterility of an instrument or dressing, it should not be used. The 4 X 4s should be soaked prior to donning the sterile gloves. Once the sterile gloves touch the bottle of normal saline they are no longer sterile. This statement indicates a need for further instruction.
Question 14. Nurse Vincent is teaching the parents of a school-age child. Which teaching topic should take priority?
A). Keeping a night light on to allay fears.
B). Encouraging the child to dress without help.
C). Prevent accidents.
D). Explaining normalcy of fears about body integrity.
Question 14 Answer: C). Prevent accidents.
Question 14 Explanation: Accidents are the major cause of death and disability during the school-age years. Therefore, accident prevention should take priority when teaching parents of school-age children. Preschool (not school-age) children are afraid of the dark, have fears concerning body integrity, and should be encouraged to dress without help (with the exception of tying shoes).
Question 15. Nurse Oliver s teaching a mother who plans to discontinue breast-feeding after 5 months. The nurse should advise her to include which foods in her infant’s diet?
A). Skim milk and baby food.
B). Iron-rich formula and baby food.
C). Whole milk and baby food.
D). Iron-rich formula only.
Question 15 Answer: D). Iron-rich formula only.
Question 15 Explanation: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that infants at age 5 months receive iron-rich formula and that they shouldn’t receive solid food – even baby food – until age 6 months. The Academy doesn’t recommend whole milk until age 12 months, and skim milk until after age 2 years.
Question 16. Shane tells the nurse that she wants to begin toilet training her 22-month-old child. The most important factor for the nurse to stress to the mother is:
A). Developmental readiness of the child.
B). The mother’s positive attitude.
C). Consistency in approach.
D). Developmental level of the child’s peers.
Question 16 Answer: A). Developmental readiness of the child.
Question 16 Explanation: If the child isn’t developmentally ready, child and parent will become frustrated. Consistency is important once toilet training has already started. The mother’s positive attitude is important when the child is ready. Developmental levels of children are individualized and comparison to peers isn’t useful.
Question 17. A client has been placed in blood and body fluid isolation. The nurse is instructing auxiliary personnel in the correct procedures. Which statement by the nursing assistant indicates the best understanding of the correct protocol for blood and body fluid isolation?
A). Masks should be worn with all client contact..
B). Isolation gowns are not needed..
C). A private room is always indicated..
D). Gloves should be worn for contact with nonintact skin, mucous membranes, or soiled items..
Question 17 Answer: D). Gloves should be worn for contact with nonintact skin, mucous membranes, or soiled items..
Question 17 Explanation: Masks should only be worn during procedures that are likely to cause splashes of blood or body fluid. Gloves should be worn for all contact with blood and body fluids, nonintact skin and mucous membranes; for handling soiled items; and for performing venipuncture. Gowns should be worn during procedures that are likely to cause splashes of blood or body fluids. A private room is only indicated if the client’s hygiene is poor.
Question 18. An infant who has been in foster care since birth requires a blood transfusion. Who is authorized to give written, informed consent for the procedure?
A). The social worker who placed the infant in the foster home.
B). The nurse-manager.
C). The registered nurse caring for the infant.
D). The foster mother.
Question 18 Answer: D). The foster mother.
Question 18 Explanation: When children are minors and aren’t emancipated, their parents or designated legal guardians are responsible for providing consent for medical procedures. Therefore, the foster mother is authorized to give consent for the blood transfusion. The social workers, the nurse, and the nurse-manager have no legal rights to give consent in this scenario.
Question 19. Ms. Smith is admitted for internal radiation for cancer of the cervix. The nurse knows the client understands the procedure when she makes which of the following remarks the night before the procedure?
A). She says to her husband, “Please bring me a hamburger and french fries tomorrow when you come. I hate hospital food.”.
B). “I understand it will be several weeks before all the radiation leaves my body.”.
C). “I told my daughter who is pregnant to either come to see me tonight or wait until I go home from the hospital.”.
D). “I brought several craft projects to do while the radium is inserted.”.
Question 19 Answer: C). “I told my daughter who is pregnant to either come to see me tonight or wait until I go home from the hospital.”.
Question 19 Explanation: The client will be on a clear liquid or very low residue diet. Hamburgers and french fries are not allowed. People who are pregnant should not come in close contact with someone who has internal radiation therapy. The radioactivity could possibly damage the fetus. This statement is not true. As soon as the radiation source is removed (probably 36 to 72 hours after insertion), the client is no longer contaminated with radioactivity. Craft projects usually require the client to sit. The client must remain flat with very little head elevation during the time the rods are in place.
Question 20. Which finding would alert a nurse that a hospitalized 6-year-old child is at risk for a severe asthma exacerbation?
A). Absence of intercostals or substernal retractions.
B). History of steroid-dependent asthma.
C). Oxygen saturation of 95%.
D). Mild work of breathing.
Question 20 Answer: B). History of steroid-dependent asthma.
Question 20 Explanation: A history of steroid-dependent asthma, a contributing factor to this client’s high-risk status, requires the nurse to treat the situation as a severe exacerbation regardless of the severity of the current episode. An oxygen saturation of 95%, mild work of breathing, and absence of intercostals or substernal retractions are all normal findings.
Question 21. A 4-month-old with meningococcal meningitis has just been admitted to the pediatric unit. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
A). Instituting droplet precautions.
B). Orienting the parents to the pediatric unit.
C). Administering acetaminophen (Tylenol).
D). Obtaining history information from the parents.
Question 21 Answer: A). Instituting droplet precautions.
Question 21 Explanation: Instituting droplet precautions is a priority for a newly admitted infant with meningococcal meningitis. Acetaminophen may be prescribed but administering it doesn’t take priority over instituting droplet precautions. Obtaining history information and orienting the parents to the unit don’t take priority.
Question 22. The parents of a child, age 6, who will begin school in the fall ask the nurse for anticipatory guidance. The nurse should explain that a child of this age:
A). Rebels against scheduled activities.
B). Loves to tattle.
C). Still depends on the parents.
D). Is highly sensitive to criticism.
Question 22 Answer: D). Is highly sensitive to criticism.
Question 22 Explanation: In a 6-year-old child, a precarious sense of self causes overreaction to criticism and a sense of inferiority. By age 6, most children no longer depend on the parents for daily tasks and love the routine of a schedule. Tattling is more common at age 4 to 5, by age 6, the child wants to make friends and be a friend.
Question 23. A child has third-degree burns of the hands, face, and chest. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority?
A). Impaired urinary elimination related to fluid loss.
B). Disturbed body image related to physical appearance.
C). Ineffective airway clearance related to edema.
D). Risk for infection related to epidermal disruption.
Question 23 Answer: C). Ineffective airway clearance related to edema.
Question 23 Explanation: Initially, when a preschool client is admitted to the hospital for burns, the primary focus is on assessing and managing an effective airway. Body image disturbance, impaired urinary elimination, and infection are all integral parts of burn management but aren’t the first priority.
Question 24. Cristina, a mother of a 4-year-old child tells the nurse that her child is a very poor eater. What’s the nurse’s best recommendation for helping the mother increase her child’s nutritional intake?
A). Use specially designed dishes for children – for example, a plate with the child’s favorite cartoon character.
B). Only serve the child’s favorite foods.
C). Allow the child to eat at a small table and chair by herself.
D). Allow the child to feed herself.
Question 24 Answer: D). Allow the child to feed herself.
Question 24 Explanation: The best recommendation is to allow the child to feed herself because the child’s stage of development is the preschool period of initiative. Special dishes would enhance the primary recommendation. The child should be offered new foods and choices, not just served her favorite foods. Using a small table and chair would also enhance the primary recommendation.
Question 25. Jayson, 1 year old child has a staph skin infection. Her brother has also developed the same infection. Which behavior by the children is most likely to have caused the transmission of the organism?
A). Sharing pacifiers..
B). Bathing together..
C). Coughing on each other..
D). Eating off the same plate..
Question 25 Answer: B). Bathing together..
Question 25 Explanation: Direct contact is the mode of transmission for staphylococcus. Staph is not spread by coughing. Staph is not spread through oral secretions. Direct contact is required. Staph is not spread through oral secretions.
Question 26. Nurse Kelly is teaching the parents of a young child how to handle poisoning. If the child ingests poison, what should the parents do first?
A). Call the poison control center.
B). Punish the child for being bad.
C). Call an ambulance immediately.
D). Administer ipecac syrup.
Question 26 Answer: A). Call the poison control center.
Question 26 Explanation: Before interviewing in any way, the parents should call the poison control center for specific directions. Ipecac syrup is no longer recommended. The parents may have to call an ambulance after calling the poison control center. Punishment for being bad isn’t appropriate because the parents are responsible for making the environment safe.
Question 27. A client is diagnosed with methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type of isolation is MOST appropriate for this client?
A). Contact isolation.
B). Standard precautions.
C). Reverse isolation.
D). Respiratory isolation.
Question 27 Answer: A). Contact isolation.
Question 27 Explanation: Contact or Body Substance Isolation (BSI) involves the use of barrier protection (e.g. gloves, mask, gown, or protective eyewear as appropriate) whenever direct contact with any body fluid is expected. When determining the type of isolation to use, one must consider the mode of transmission. The hands of personnel continues to be the principal mode of transmission for methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Because the organism is limited to the sputum in this example, precautions are taken if contact with the patient”s sputum is expected. A private room and BSI, along with good hand washing techniques, are the best defense against the spread of MRSA pneumonia.
Question 28. A 10-year-old client contracted severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) when traveling abroad with her parents. The nurse knows she must put on personal protective equipment to protect herself while providing care. Based on the mode of SARS transmission, which personal protective should the nurse wear?
A). Gown and gloves.
C). Gown, gloves, and mask.
D). Gown, gloves, mask, and eye goggles or eye shield.
Question 28 Answer: D). Gown, gloves, mask, and eye goggles or eye shield.
Question 28 Explanation: The transmission of SARS isn’t fully understood. Therefore, all modes of transmission must be considered possible, including airborne, droplet, and direct contact with the virus. For protection from contracting SARS, any health care worker providing care for a client with SARS should wear a gown, gloves, mask, and eye goggles or an eye shield.
Question 29. The mother of Gian, a preschooler with spina bifida tells the nurse that her daughter sneezes and gets a rash when playing with brightly colored balloons, and that she recently had an allergic reaction after eating kiwifruit and bananas. The nurse would suspect that the child may have an allergy to:
B). Color dyes.
Question 29 Answer: A). Latex.
Question 29 Explanation: Children with spina bifida often develop an allergy to latex and shouldn’t be exposed to it. If a child is sensitive to bananas, kiwifruit, and chestnuts, then she’s likely to be allergic to latex. Some children are allergic to dyes in foods and other products but dyes aren’t a factor in a latex allergy.
Question 30. Nurse Jane is visiting a client at home and is assessing him for risk of a fall. The most important factor to consider in this assessment is:
A). status of salt intake..
B). the resting pulse rate..
C). Correct illumination of the environment..
D). amount of regular exercise..
Question 30 Answer: C). Correct illumination of the environment..
Question 30 Explanation: To prevent falls, the environment should be well lighted. Night lights should be used if necessary. Other factors to assess include removing loose scatter rugs, removing spills, and installing handrails and grab bars as appropriate. The amount of regular exercise is not the most important factor to assess. It is only indirectly related. The resting pulse rate is not related to preventing falls. The salt intake is not directly related to preventing falls.
Question 31. An adolescent who sustained a tibia fracture in a motor vehicle accident has a cast. What should the nurse do to help relieve the itching?
A). Use sterile applicators to scratch the itch.
B). Apply cool water under the cast.
C). Apply hydrocortisone cream under the cast using sterile applicator..
D). Apply cool air under the cast with a blow-dryer.
Question 31 Answer: D). Apply cool air under the cast with a blow-dryer.
Question 31 Explanation: Itching underneath a cast can be relieved by directing blow-dryer, set, on the cool setting, toward the itchy area. Skin breakdown can occur if anything is placed under the cast. Therefore, the client should be cautioned not to put any object down the cast in an attempt to scratch.
Question 32. After the nurse provides dietary restrictions to the parents of a child with celiac disease, which statement by the parents indicates effective teaching?
A). “We’ll follow these instructions until our child has completely grown and developed.”.
B). “Our child must maintain these dietary restrictions lifelong.”.
C). “Well follow these instructions until our child’s symptoms disappear.”.
D). “Our child must maintain these dietary restrictions until adulthood.”.
Question 32 Answer: B). “Our child must maintain these dietary restrictions lifelong.”.
Question 32 Explanation: A patient with celiac disease must maintain dietary restrictions lifelong to avoid recurrence of clinical manifestations of the disease. The other options are incorrect because signs and symptoms will reappear if the patient eats prohibited foods.
Question 33. A client has been placed in blood and body fluid isolation. The nurse is instructing auxiliary personnel in the correct procedures. Which statement by the nursing assistant indicates the best understanding of the correct protocol for blood and body fluid isolation?
A). Gloves should be worn for contact with nonintact skin, mucous membranes, or soiled items..
B). A private room is always indicated..
C). Masks should be worn with all client contact..
D). Isolation gowns are not needed..
Question 33 Answer: A). Gloves should be worn for contact with nonintact skin, mucous membranes, or soiled items..
Question 33 Explanation: Masks should only be worn during procedures that are likely to cause splashes of blood or body fluid. Gloves should be worn for all contact with blood and body fluids, nonintact skin and mucous membranes; for handling soiled items; and for performing venipuncture. Gowns should be worn during procedures that are likely to cause splashes of blood or body fluids. A private room is only indicated if the client’s hygiene is poor.
Question 34. A 2 year old is to be admitted in the pediatric unit. He is diagnosed with febrile seizures. In preparing for his admission, which of the following is the most important nursing action?
A). Place a urine collection bag and specimen cup at the bedside..
B). Order a stat admission CBC..
C). Pad the side rails of his bed..
D). Place a cooling mattress on his bed..
Question 34 Answer: C). Pad the side rails of his bed..
Question 34 Explanation: Preparing for routine laboratory studies is not as high a priority as preventing injury and promoting safety. Preparing for routine laboratory studies is not as high a priority as preventing injury and promoting safety. A cooling blanket must be ordered by the physician and is usually not used unless other methods for the reduction of fever have not been successful. The child has a diagnosis of febrile seizures. Precautions to prevent injury and promote safety should take precedence.
Question 35. Which question is least useful in the assessment of a client with AIDS?
A). Are you a drug user?.
B). What is your method of birth control?.
C). How old were you when you became sexually active?.
D). Do you have many sex partners?.
Question 35 Answer: C). How old were you when you became sexually active?.
Question 35 Explanation: Drug use is a risk factor for AIDS. Multiple sex partners is a risk factor for AIDS. Birth control methods are important to prevent a baby from being born with the AIDS virus. The age at which sexual activity began it not relevant as it does not usually provide information that identifies the presence of risk factors for AIDS.
Question 36. Gracie, the mother of a 3-month-old infant calls the clinic and states that her child has a diaper rash. What should the nurse advice?
A). “Switch to cloth diapers until the rash is gone”.
B). “Offer extra fluids to the infant until the rash improves.”.
C). “Use baby wipes with each diaper change.”.
D). “Leave the diaper off while the infant sleeps.”.
Question 36 Answer: D). “Leave the diaper off while the infant sleeps.”.
Question 36 Explanation: Leaving the diaper off while the infant sleeps helps to promote air circulation to the area, improving the condition. Switching to cloth diapers isn’t necessary; in fact, that may make the rash worse. Baby wipes contain alcohol, which may worsen the condition. Extra fluids won’t make the rash better.
Question 37. An eighty five year old man was admitted for surgery for benign prostatic hypertrophy. Preoperatively he was alert, oriented, cooperative, and knowledgeable about his surgery. Several hours after surgery, the evening nurse found him acutely confused, agitated, and trying to climb over the protective side rails on his bed. The most appropriate nursing intervention that will calm an agitated client is
A). encourage family phone calls..
B). speak soothingly and provide quiet music..
C). position in a bright, busy area..
D). limit visits by staff..
Question 37 Answer: B). speak soothingly and provide quiet music..
Question 37 Explanation: The client needs frequent visits by the staff to orient him and to assess his safety. Phone calls from his family will not help a client who is trying to climb over the side rails and may even add to his danger. Putting the client in a bright, busy area would probably add to his confusion. The environment is an important factor in the prevention of injuries. Talking softly and providing quiet music have a calming effect on the agitated client.
Question 38. While preparing to discharge an 8-month-old infant who is recovering from gastroenteritis and dehydration, the nurse teaches the parents about their infant’s dietary and fluid requirements. The nurse should include which other topic in the teaching session?
A). Nursery schools.
B). Toilet Training.
C). Safety guidelines.
D). Preparation for surgery.
Question 38 Answer: C). Safety guidelines.
Question 38 Explanation: The nurse always should reinforce safety guidelines when teaching parents how to care for their child. By giving anticipatory guidance the nurse can help prevent many accidental injuries. For parents of a 9-month-old infant, it is too early to discuss nursery schools or toilet training. Because surgery is not used gastroenteritis, this topic is inappropriate.
Question 39. A young adult is being treated for second and third degree burns over 25% of his body and is now ready for discharge. The nurse evaluates his understanding of discharge instructions relating to wound care and is satisfied that he is prepared for home care when he makes which statement?
A). “If any healed areas break open I should first cover them with a sterile dressing and then report it.”.
B). “I must wear my Jobst elastic garment all day and can only remove it when I’m going to bed.”.
C). “I can expect occasional periods of low-grade fever and can take Tylenol every 4 hours.”.
D). “I will need to take sponge baths at home to avoid exposing the wounds to unsterile bath water.”.
Question 39 Answer: A). “If any healed areas break open I should first cover them with a sterile dressing and then report it.”.
Question 39 Explanation: “I can expect occasional periods of low-grade fever and can take Tylenol every 4 hours.”
Question 40. When planning care for a 8-year-old boy with Down syndrome, the nurse should:
A). Assess the child’s current developmental level and plan care accordingly.
B). Direct all teaching to the parents because the child can’t understand.
C). Plan interventions according to the developmental level of a 7-year-old child because that’s the child’s age.
D). Plan interventions according to the developmental levels of a 5-year-old because the child will have developmental delays.
Question 40 Answer: A). Assess the child’s current developmental level and plan care accordingly.
Question 40 Explanation: Nursing care plan should be planned according to the developmental age of a child with Down syndrome, not the chronological age. Because children with Down syndrome can vary from mildly to severely mentally challenged, each child should be individually assessed. A child with Down syndrome is capable of learning, especially a child with mild limitations.
Question 41. A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of suspected meningococcal meningitis. Which of the following nursing measures should the nurse do FIRST?
A). Place in respiratory isolation.
B). Assess neurologic status.
C). Institute seizure precautions.
D). Assess vital signs.
Question 41 Answer: A). Place in respiratory isolation.
Question 41 Explanation: The initial therapeutic management of acute bacterial meningitis includes isolation precautions, initiation of antimicrobial therapy and maintenance of optimum hydration. Nurses should take necessary precautions to protect themselves and others from possible infection.
Question 42. Which of the following is the FIRST priority in preventing infections when providing care for a client?
A). Using a barrier between client’s furniture and nurse’s bag.
B). Wearing gloves.
C). Wearing gowns and goggles.
Question 42 Answer: D). Handwashing.
Question 42 Explanation: Handwashing remains the most effective way to avoid spreading infection. However, too often nurses do not practice good handwashing techniques and do not teach families to do so. Nurses need to wash their hands before and after touching the client and before entering the nursing bag.
Question 43. Jessie, a young man with newly diagnosed acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is being discharged from the hospital. The nurse knows that teaching regarding prevention of AIDS transmission has been effective when the client:
A). verbalizes the role of sexual activity in spread of the disorder..
B). tates he will make arrangements to drop his college classes.
C). acknowledges the need to avoid all contact sports..
D). says he will avoid close contact with his three-year-old niece..
Question 43 Answer: A). verbalizes the role of sexual activity in spread of the disorder..
Question 43 Explanation: The AIDS virus is spread through direct contact with body fluids such as blood and through sexual intercourse. Casual contact with other people does not pose a risk of transmission of AIDS. Unless the client is feeling very ill, there is no need for him to drop his college classes. Contact sports are not contraindicated unless there is a significant chance of bleeding and direct contact with others. Casual contact with other people does not pose a risk of transmission of AIDS. There is no need to limit casual contact with children.
Question 44. Nurse Roy is administering total parental nutrition (TPN) through a peripheral I.V. line to a school-age child. What’s the smallest amount of glucose that’s considered safe and not caustic to small veins, while also providing adequate TPN?
A). 10% glucose.
B). 15% glucose.
C). 5% glucose.
D). 17% glucose.
Question 44 Answer: A). 10% glucose.
Question 44 Explanation: The amount of glucose that’s considered safe for peripheral veins while still providing adequate parenteral nutrition is 10%. Five percent glucose isn’t sufficient nutritional replacement, although it’s sake for peripheral veins. Any amount above 10% must be administered via central venous access.
Question 45. David, age 15 months, is recovering from surgery to remove Wilms’ tumor. Which findings best indicates that the child is free from pain?
A). Decreased urine output.
B). Increased heart rate.
C). Decreased appetite.
D). Increased interest in play.
Question 45 Answer: D). Increased interest in play.
Question 45 Explanation: One of the most valuable clues to pain is a behavior change: A child who’s pain-free likes to play. A child in pain is less likely to consume food or fluids. An increased heart rate may indicate increased pain; decreased urine output may signify dehydration.
Question 46. The nurse in charge is evaluating the infection control procedures on the unit. Which finding indicates a break in technique and the need for education of staff?
A). A client with active tuberculosis is asked to wear a mask when he leaves his room to go to another department for testing..
B). A client with active tuberculosis is asked to wear a mask when he leaves his room to go to another department for testing..
C). The nurse aide is not wearing gloves when feeding an elderly client..
D). The nurse puts on a mask, a gown, and gloves before entering the room of a client on strict isolation..
Question 46 Answer: A). A client with active tuberculosis is asked to wear a mask when he leaves his room to go to another department for testing..
Question 46 Explanation: There is no need to wear gloves when feeding a client. However, universal precautions (treating all blood and body fluids as if they are infectious) should be observed in all situations. A client with active tuberculosis should be on respiratory precautions. Having the client wear a mask when leaving his private room is appropriate. Persons with exudative lesions or weeping dermatitis should not give direct client care or handle client-care equipment until the condition resolves. Strict isolation requires the use of mask, gown, and gloves.
Question 47. Mrs. Parker, a 70-year-old woman with severe macular degeneration, is admitted to the hospital the day before scheduled surgery. The nurse’s preoperative goals for Mrs. M. would include:
A). reading the routine preoperative education materials..
B). independently ambulating around the unit..
C). using a bedpan for elimination needs..
D). maneuvering safely after orientation to the room..
Question 47 Answer: D). maneuvering safely after orientation to the room..
Question 47 Explanation: Independently ambulating around the unit is not appropriate because the unit environment can change and injury could result. Assistance is necessary because of the client’s visual deficit. It is unlikely the client can see well enough to read the materials. Maneuvering safely after orientation to the room is a realistic goal for a person with impaired vision. Orienting the client to the room should help the client to move safely. Using the bedpan is an unnecessary restriction on the client as she can be oriented to the bathroom or to call for assistance.
Question 48. The nurse is evaluating whether nonprofessional staff understand how to prevent transmission of HIV. Which of the following behaviors indicates correct application of universal precautions?
A). A lab technician rests his hand on the desk to steady it while recapping the needle after drawing blood..
B). An assistant puts on a mask and protective eye wear before assisting the nurse to suction a tracheostomy..
C). A pregnant worker refuses to care for a client known to have AIDS..
D). An aide wears gloves to feed a helpless client..
Question 48 Answer: B). An assistant puts on a mask and protective eye wear before assisting the nurse to suction a tracheostomy..
Question 48 Explanation: Needles that have been used to draw blood should not be recapped. If it is necessary to recap them, an instrument such as a hemostat should be used to recap. The hand should never be used. Gloves are not necessary when feeding, since there is no contact with mucus membranes. Although saliva may have small amounts of HIV in it, the virus does not invade through unbroken skin. There is no evidence in the question to indicate broken skin. Masks and protective eye wear are indicated anytime there is great potential for splashing of body fluids that may be contaminated with blood. Suctioning of a tracheostomy almost always stimulates coughing, which is likely to generate droplets that may splash the health care worker. Clients who are suctioned frequently or have had an invasive procedure like a tracheostomy are likely to have blood in the sputum. There is no reason to restrict pregnant workers from caring for persons with AIDS as long as they utilize universal precautions.
Question 49. A child is undergoing remission induction therapy to treat leukemia. Allopurinol is included in the regimen. The main reason for administering allopurinol as part of the client’s chemotherapy regimen is to:
A). Prevent uric acid from precipitating in the ureters.
B). Enhance the production of uric acid to ensure adequate excretion of urine.
C). Prevent metabolic breakdown of xanthine to uric acid.
D). Ensure that the chemotherapy doesn’t adversely affect the bone marrow.
Question 49 Answer: C). Prevent metabolic breakdown of xanthine to uric acid.
Question 49 Explanation: The massive cell destruction resulting from chemotherapy may place the client at risk for developing renal calculi; adding allopurinol decreases this risk by preventing the breakdown of xanthine to uric acid. Allopurinol doesn’t act in the manner described in the other options.
Question 50. A parent brings a toddler, age 19 months, to the clinic for a regular check-up. When palpating the toddler’s fontanels, what should the nurse expects to find?
A). Closed anterior fontanel and open posterior fontanel.
B). Closed anterior and posterior fontanels.
C). Open anterior and posterior fontanels.
D). Open anterior and fontanel and closed posterior fontanel.
Question 50 Answer: B). Closed anterior and posterior fontanels.
Question 50 Explanation: By age 18 months, the anterior and posterior fontanels should be closed. The diamond-shaped anterior fontanel normally closes between ages 9 and 18 months. The triangular posterior fontanel normally closes between ages 2 and 3 months.